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Exam Code: 132-S-911-3
Exam Name: Avaya (Specialist IP Telephony Implement and Support Elective Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 103 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A customer is using Avaya 4600 Series IP Telephones on an Avaya S87xx Server
using several
TN799DP (CLAN) and TN2302 (Medpro) cards. Telephones located at a remote site are
unable to
register with the CLAN. The CLAN can ping and be pinged. Which two commands or
troubleshooting
methods can identify the problem? (Choose two.)
A.list sys-link
B.status station
C.list trace ras station
D.use a network sniffer between the phone and the network
Answer:C D

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NO.2 You have an S8720 Server optioned for Software Duplication. Which Ethernet port is
the Duplication
Link assigned to?
A.Ethernet 1
B.Ethernet 2
C.Ethernet 3
D.Ethernet 4
Answer:B

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NO.3 You are migrating from a Definity server to an S8500/S87XX server. Where is the IPSI
board located?
A.It is always placed into slot number 1.
B.The location depends on which media server is used.
C.It can be slotted into any available media gateway slot.
D.The location depends on which media gateway is used.
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which is a characteristic of a global VLAN ID?
A.must have at least five digits
B.can vary from one device to another
C.supports QoS between multi-vendor WAN/LANs
D.remains consistent across all VLAN tagging schemes
Answer:D

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NO.5 What color is the LED when a TN circuit pack is executing a test?
A.red
B.green
C.yellow
D.amber
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which two parameters are found in an H.323 Signaling Group form? (Choose two.)
A.QoS parameters
B.a default gateway
C.the far-end network region
D.a TN799 C-LAN for call signaling
Answer:C D

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NO.7 A company purchases the right to use Avaya IP Softphone for 100 stations. The users
complain that
the call center buttons (AUX, After-Call, Login, and Logout) programmed on their stations no
longer work
as expected. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A.TCP/UDP port blockage in the corporate WAN
B.improper administration of the stations in the PBX
C.users trying to use the application for non-supported functions
D.improper installation of the Avaya IP Softphone application on the users' PCs
Answer:C

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NO.8 Which two Avaya Communication Manager commands display the VoIP statistics of a
specific extension
active on call? (Choose two.)
A.status station
B.display station
C.list trace station
D.display trace station
Answer:A C

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NO.9 An Avaya IP phone is connected over a WAN link to the main office where the TN799
CLAN and
TN2302 IP Media Processor are located. The Avaya IP phone is registered properly on the
CLAN. A DCP
phone calls the Avaya IP phone and the call is answered. The audio quality is poor in both
directions, but
the call stays up until one of the users disconnects. Which two conditions cause this audio
quality problem?
(Choose two.)
A.insufficient IP media processor resources
B.use of the G.711 codec to transmit audio over the WAN link
C.implementing Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) on the edge router
D.intermittent connectivity between the Avaya IP phone and the CLAN
Answer:B C

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about DHCP? (Choose two.)
A.a DHCP server is required to configure all Avaya IP telephones
B.a DHCP server can be used to send the DNS server address to the client
C.one DHCP server is required for each subnet containing clients that require the service
D.a DHCP server is used to send an IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway address
to the client
Answer:B D

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NO.11 You are working with the powerful concept of a network region section. Which three
parameters can be
set on the IP network region screen? (Choose three.)
A.H.323 endpoint
B.SIP enabled endpoints
C.hairpinning and shuffling
D.UDP port range parameters
E.QoS parameters such as DiffServ/TOS and 802.1p/Q
Answer:C D E

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NO.12 Your customer is unable to light message waiting lights at a small branch office using
a shared Intuity
voice mail system on a QSIG network running DCS. What is the first command you should
execute?
A.list ip-interfaces
B.list media-gateway
C.display-ip-network-region
D.status station
Answer:D

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NO.13 Your customer asks you to verify the current subnet mask assigned to a remote Avaya
G700 Media
Gateway P330 stack management interface. Which command should you use to obtain this
information?
A.session stack
B.show interface
C.show interface mgp
D.show interface stack manager
Answer:B

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NO.14 In an Enterprise Survivable Server (ESS) scenario, how do you save translations to
your ESS server?
A.save trans
B.save trans all
C.save ESS settings
D.save trans cluster ESS
Answer:B

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NO.15 Within a single Avaya Communication Manager 4.0, how can you have conflicting four
digit extensions
for separate locations in a four digit plan?
A.you insert an additional digit on the incoming trunk group form
B.you enter a different UDP code on the dial plan analysis form and take it off in the incoming
trunk group
C.you enter an extra digit on the dial-plan analysis and delete a digit in the routing pattern
D.you enter X where x is the location number on the uniform dial plan and prefix an additional
first digit;
the changed number matches in AAR analysis and goes to a pattern
Answer:D

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NO.16 Which Communication Manager (CM) feature utilizes PSTN connectivity when IP WAN
bandwidth limit
has been reached?
A.Inter-Gateway Alternate Routing
B.Intra-Gigabit Analytical Resource
C.Intelligent Global Access Routing
D.Intelligent Gatekeeper Associated Routes
Answer:A

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NO.17 A customer has purchased 20 Avaya IP telephones over a period of three years.
Knowing that the IEEE
802.3af standard has been ratified, the customer decided to purchase a C360-PWR switch to
provide
in-line power to the IP telephones. However, only 15 of the phones power up when they are
connected to
the C360-PWR. Upon investigation you discover the five phones which would not receive
power from
C360-PWR are Generation 1 models that are not 802.3af compliant. Which three methods
should you
use to power these phones? (Choose three.)
A.356A adapter
B.individual power brick
C.1152A1 mid-span unit with adapter
D.other vendor 802.3af compliant device
E.IP phone 4600 Ethernet 30A base switch
Answer:B C E

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NO.18 DHCP option codes 128 to 254 are reserved for site-specific options. A single number
out of this range
is commonly utilized by vendors to configure their Avaya IP phones via DHCP (Option 176).
Which
additional option code supports vendor-specific options?
A.3
B.23
C.43
D.63
Answer:C

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NO.19 Which two statements about VoIP Monitoring Manager are true? (Choose two.)
A.VoIP Monitoring Manager is a GUI-based tool that can chart historical graphs of audio
performance on
VoIP endpoints
B.VoIP Monitoring Manager can be used to troubleshoot VoIP endpoints registration
problems and call
signaling problems
C.the reporting interval of VoIP Monitoring Manager can be varied depending on the required
granularity
of the performance statistics
D.VoIP Monitoring Manager is a text-based tool that has the look and feel of a CLI and can
be embedded
into Cajun switches as an add-on feature
Answer:A C

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NO.20 In an S87xx MultiConnect, Port Network 18 has no IPSI. Which command will show the
IPSI that is in
control of that Port Network?
A.Status fiber 18
B.List ipserver-interface
C.Status port-network 18
D.Status sys-link 18a0101 current
Answer:D

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Exam Code: 132-S-720-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Specialist Call Center Implement and Support Elective Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Your client needs to address agent morale issues thin their call center. These issues
are tied to those
agents who staff a higher number of skills resulting in more time spent on ACO calls (also
known as hot
seats ¯).
Which Avaya capability should be used to help eliminate ® ho t sea t ¡¯ in a c a ll ce nter
A. Auto-Reserve Agents
B. Least Occupied Agent (LOA)
C. Expert Agent Selection (EAS)
D. Percent Allocation Distribution (PAD)
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your customer is implementing third-party data directed routing
Which three ctor steps would cause an adjunct routing request to be terminated? (Choose
three.)
A. check split
B. wait
C. queue
D. go to step
E. converse on split
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.3 Your customer would like to be able to collect call center data when the enterprise
fragments using a
remote gateway. Since this is a small location, an LSP was installed to support the users
Which system
would allow the customer to collect and then add data back to the main Call Management
System (CMS)?
A. HACMS
B. Primary CMS
C. BCMR-D
D. Survivable CMS
Answer: D

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NO.4 You have just installed Avaya P Agent R-6 on the computers for all 150 agents. All of
the computers can
ping the Communication Manager (CM), but only 100 of the agents can log into their lP Agent
station.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The ®M ax i m u m C oncu rr en tl y R eg i s t e r ed I P S t a ti on¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® s ys -
parameters customer-options ¯
screen is set to 100.
B. The ® I P S t a ti on¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® s ys -parameters customer-options ¯ sc r een i s se
t t o¡ n
C. The ®M u lti m ed i a M od ¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® chan ge s tat o n ¡ ¯ fo r m i s s et t o ¡ ® E
nh n c
D. The ®Phone Fea t u r e¡¯ w i nd o w o n t h ¡® S tat ion A dm i n istrat io n f o r m nee d s t
o be s e t o ¡® -In ¯.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your customer has basic reporting requirements that include agent level skill reporting
for 12
simultaneous supervisors accessing real-time information using PCs over their Local Area
Network. What
is the most cost effective reporting offer that meets these requirements?
A. BCMR Desktop
B. BCMS
C. CMS
D. Operational Analyst
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is not a valid connecbvity test available using the Applications
Enablement
Services Utilities menu available from OAM?
A. TSAPI Test
B. Ping Host
C. ASAI Test
D. Traceroute
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are a team member assigned on a project to install a new Avaya S87XX Media
Server and a new
Avaya Call Management System (CMS). Who is responsible for identifying what equipment
has arrived at
the customers site?
A. the field technician
B. the client executive
C. the program manager
D. the remote field engineer (RFE)
Answer: A

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NO.8 Your customer wants to periodically adjust agent skill assignments and preferences
automatically
(without human intervention) based on real-time agent sales results in their CRM application.
Which solution would satisfy the requirement?
A. Implement a custom CTI application which will change the agent skills.
B. Pursue a custom application through Avaya CSI
C. Use Avaya Site Administration Scheduling.
D. Use CMS Supervisor scripting.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Your customer is migrating their call center from basic ACD to EAS.
After the EAS feature has been licensed on the system, what are three tasks that must be
completed to
facilitate the EAS conversion? (Choose three.)
A. EAS must be optioned on the Feature Related System Parameters form.
B. The CMS (if present) switch administration for the ACO must be changed to support EAS.
C. Queue Status Indicators must be re-administered.
D. Agent work mode buttons on voice terminals must be modified.
E. Administer hunt groups for Redirect on No Answer (RONA).
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.10 When turning on the CMS application an installation engineer receives the message
shown:
®C heck i ng t he S ys t e m Tunab l es f o r CM S va l ues m d : m irr o r ed_ r oo t _ fl ag
MUST be se t t o 1 CM S canno t r un
without correct tunable values. Error occurred while processing request..... see
/cmsfinstallllogdir/admin.log for detaiIs ¯
Which file will require amending to resolve this problem?
A. /etcftunables
B. /etc/system
C. /cms/insta llftunables
D. /etc/defaultlmirror
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer wishes to allocate the subnet 255.255252.0 to the ® cus t o m e r LAN ne t
w o r k i n t e rf ac ¡¯ o n t h
CMS. Which file must be amended to ensure that this net mask is correctly allocated when
the CMS
system is rebooted?
A. /etc!subnet
B. /etc/netmasks
C. /etcfnetworks
D. /etcfhosts
Answer: B

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NO.12 Your customer is implementing a non-AVAYA CI/LAN application in conjunction with
Communication
Manager (CM) 4 0 What is the minimum software licensing required on Communication
Manager and AE
Services?
A. ASAI Core on CM and TSAPI Basic and Ad ¯i anced on AE Se r M ces
B. ASAI Core on CM and CvtAN on AE Ser ¯.i ces
C. ASAI Core, ASAI Plus and Cli Stations on CM and CVLAN on AE Services
D. CTI Propnetary Adjunct inks on CM and CVL.AN on AE Services
Answer: B

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NO.13 You have been assigned a project to add an ACD to an existing Avaya Call
Management System (CMS).
The customer has requested that Avaya provide a turn-key implementation Which three
resources will
you schedule? (Choose three)
A. Communication solutions integration - provisioning
B. Communicabon and Solution Integration (C&Sl)
C. software specialist
D. on-site technician
E. Network Integration Center (NIC)
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.14 You ask the Avaya Call Management System (CMS) administrator to increase the
measured trunks.
Since the administrator has not changed parameters before, CMS administration
documentation must be
accessed. Which three sections are needed to change parameters? (Choose three.)
A. Free Space Allocation
B. Data Storage Allocation
C. Trunk Group assignment
D. Data Collection
E. Disk Allocation
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.15 A customer wants to know the definition of the Average ACD Time on the Historical
Split Skill Summary
Interval Report. Which documentation would you reference in order to obtain this
information?
A. Avaya Call Management System Supervisor Release 14 Reports
B. Avaya CMS Supervisor Release 14 Report Designer
C. Avaya CMS Capacities
D. Avaya Call Management System Release 14 Administration
Answer: A

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NO.16 Your customer has commissioned agents who take both service related calls as well
as sales
opportunity calls The agents receive a commission on all sales. Which Business Advocate
feature would
assure that agents are provided equal opportunity to take sales related calls?
A. Service Objective
B. Percentage Allocation Distribution
C. Service Level Supervisor
D. Reserve Agent
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which three statements descnbe the correct use of the asaiuui vector vanable when
communicating
with an adjunct computer telephony integration application? (Choose three.)
A. Valid lengths of the asaiuui vector variable range from 1 to 24 digits
B. The asaiuu, vector variable allows the adjunct CTI application to set a variable for use in
vector
processing
C. A common use for the asaiuui variable in a vector step is to test the assigned value
against a threshold
value.
D. The scope of the asaiuui variables is only local
E. Once a value is assigned, it cannot be modified or changed byrne adjunct
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.18 For single site call centers where Call Management System (CMS) data is critical to
their business,
which two benefits does the CMS provide for minimum data loss? (Choose two.)
A. disk mirroring
B. Survivable CMS
C. high availability CMS
D. duplicated processors
Answer: A, C

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NO.19 You have just received a call from a customer that agent 6024 is no longer receiving
calls for skill 6.
The customer informs you that the agent was receiving calls yesterday for this skill. You
display the agent
login ID and inform the customer that skill 6 is no longer assigned in the agents profile. The
customer
wants to know when the agents profile was changed. Keep in mind that changes to agent
profiles for this
customer can only be made through the Media Server,
Which command would you use to determine when a change was made to this agents
profile?
A. display changes extension 6024
B. list history
C. display agent 6024
D. displayevents 6024
E. trace agents
Answer: B

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NO.20 Your customer is reporting that after hours callers are being disconnected. Recently
they changed the
out-of-hours vector from routing to an internal voice mailbox to an off site answering service
using a
route-to digits step
What is happening?
A. Dial ahead digits are being discarded
B. In the associated vector, coverage on route-to digits step was set to no.
C. In the associated vector, coverage on route-to digits step was set to °yee
D. Class of Restriction on associated VON has too low of an FRL to allow outcalling
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 6401-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya IP Office Implementation Exam)
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Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A user (ext. 199) reports that their IMS client displays an error message when attempting to ring a
phone. What are three reasons that would prevent the IMS program from calling the phone? (Choose
three.)
A. The user profile in Manager has "199" entered as the user name.
B. The phone is set for "Do Not Disturb".
C. The user's "Multi Line Option" is set to "Answer Pre-select".
D. The user mailbox is set to "Blank" under Outlook Tools/Integrated Messaging.
E. The user's profile has "System Phone" is set to "On".
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 Which two e-mail protocols are used by VoiceMail Pro to perform voicemail to e-mail? (Choose two.)
A. POP 3
B. SMTP
C. MAPI
D. IMAP
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has two sites, each with an IP Office linked via a private digital line (E1/T1). The head office is
connected to the public network through a digital exchange line. The remote site gains access to the
public network via the head office.
How should Clock Quality be set in the IP Office on the lines marked X and Y in the exhibit?
A. X - Network -- Y - Fallback
B. X ?Fallback -- Y - Fallback
C. X ?Network -- Y - Unsuitable
D. X ?Fallback -- Y - Unsuitable
Answer: C

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NO.4 When tracing a system with the System Monitor program you notice that the Roll Over Log button is
grayed out. What is causing this?
A. You have not set your log preferences.
B. You have a firewall in place.
C. You are monitoring the wrong system.
D. You have paused the screen logging, and are no longer gathering data.
Answer: A

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NO.5 When using Voice Conference Notification in the Conference Center Software, which three options
does the participant have when they are called? (Choose three.)
A. Wait
B. Accept
C. Decline
D. Join later
E. Participant is unavailable
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.6 Which IP port does Internet Explorer use to access the ContactStore Web page?
A. 8080
B. 8000
C. 8888
D. 8990
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer wants to have a simple conference bridge with four permanent bridges set up off of a menu
in VoiceMail Pro. The customer also wants each bridge protected with a different static PIN. Where in the
setup of this scenario would you enter the PIN?
A. on the General tab in the menu action
B. on the General tab for each transfer action
C. on the Telephone Number field in the IP Office Short Code
D. in the Properties box for each option in the Touch Tone tab in the menu action
Answer: B

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NO.8 How much space does a recording in VoiceMail Pro use on a hard drive?
A. 1MB per minute
B. 500KB per minute
C. 2MB per minute
D. 1.5MB per minute
Answer: A

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NO.9 You have a customer who has loop start analog trunks. Their callers report that the line rings much
longer than the internal extensions ring. What is a possible cause of this problem?
A. The line prefix has not been correctly configured.
B. The Ring Off Maximum settings for the trunks are too high.
C. Trunks are set for Loop Start ICLID on the IP Office.
D. The trunk is supplying a long Caller ID string and the Long CLI option has not been checked in
Manager.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer is receiving calls to a hunt group and the callers are reporting that they are being forced to
wait much longer than VoiceMail Pro reported to them during the queued message. What is a possible
cause for this?
A. The hunt group has a priority set to 1.
B. The hunt group has a priority set to 3.
C. There are two routes going to the hunt group. Each has different priorities set.
D. Users in the hunt group have inconsistent priority settings. The users with a priority set to 3 are always
busy.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two are used to turn on Small Community Networking within the main IP Office 500? (Choose
two.)
A. RAS
B. FastStart
C. Voice Networking
D. Professional License Enabled
Answer: C,D

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NO.12 An IP Office telephone user reports that a phone is not ringing for outside calls.
What are three possible reasons why this is happening? (Choose three.)
A. The IP Office locale is set to "A-Law".
B. The phone does not have the user profile logged onto the phone.
C. The ring volume is too low to hear.
D. The phone has been set to "Offhook Station".
E. The phone is set to "Do Not Disturb".
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.13 What information do you need from a customer to be able to reproduce a call park problem? (Choose
three.)
A. accurate description of the problem
B. a System Monitor trace of the problem
C. a Network Assessment
D. the system configuration
E. information on the phones and lines being used
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.14 What line type supports the IP Office R 4.2 mobile call control functionality?
A. IP DECT Line
B. SIP (RFC2833)
C. IP Line (H.323)
D. Analogue Trunk
Answer: B

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NO.15 IP Office has a feature, "Conference Meet Me" which allows users to join or start a specific numbered
conference.
Which IP Office Platform does NOT support "Conference Meet Me"?
A. IP Office 401ng
B. IP Office 500 Professional
C. IP Office 403
D. IP Office 500 Standard
Answer: D

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NO.16 You want to install ContactStore on a PC separate from the VoiceMail Pro PC . Which three steps would
you need to complete for ContactStore to function separately? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the Voice Recording Library on the VoiceMail Pro server is shared on the customer's
network.
B. Verify that the ContactStore service has read and write permissions to the Voice Recording Library
Share.
C. Verify that the ContactStore registry settings have been updated to see the Voice Recording Library
share.
D. Verify that the VoiceMail Pro registry settings have been updated to point to the Voice Recording
Library share.
E. Verify that the ContactStore licenses have been loaded onto the PC running the ContactStore
application.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.17 A remote user wants to gain access to the network when using the RAS server.
Under which two conditions would you create an IP route.? (Choose two.)
A. when the remote user's dial-up connection method contains a DHCP address that is on a different
subnet
B. when the user is on the same subnet as the IP Office
C. when the remote user's dial-up connection method contains a static IP address that is on a different
subnet
D. when the IP Office's DHCP mode is set to Server or Dial In and the PC connection method is set to
obtain an IP Address Automatically
Answer: A,C

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NO.18 A customer calls and informs you that every time they call voicemail they get a busy signal. The
customer sends you the trace shown below:
0ms PRN: Monitor Started IP=192.168.42.203 IP406 DS 4.0(5) IPOffice_1
1ms PRN: LAW=U PRI=2, BRI=0, ALOG=4, ADSL=0, VCOMP=16, MDM=2, WAN=0
MODU=0 LANM-0, CkSRC=0 VMAIL=0(VER=1 TYP=1) CALLS=39(TOT=20123)
Does the trace show enough information to indicate to the customer where to begin problem resolution
and what the problem may be?
A. Yes, the voicemail is not connected to the system.
B. Yes, the Auto Attendant is using up all of the voicemail channels.
C. No, I would need to see a trace of them calling voicemail.
D. No, I would also need a Debug_View trace of the voicemail.
Answer: A

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NO.19 A customer has two IP Office systems connected using Small Community Networking with centralized
voicemail. When calling from one system to another, calls intermittently get one-way audio. Which two are
necessary to begin troubleshooting this issue? (Choose two.)
A. System Status Application
B. Sniffer trace
C. IP Office Monitor trace information
D. Voicemail console trace
Answer: A,C

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NO.20 When using Small Community Networking which two features require the Small Community Advanced
License to function? (Choose two.)
A. Hot Desking
B. Hot Desking across the SCN
C. playing queued announcements
D. Break Out dialing
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: 3102
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura Session Manager and System Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which statement is true with regard to SIP Monitoring being enabled on a SIP Entity?
A. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
B. SIP Entity will monitor the status of Session Manager by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
C. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP SUBSCRIBE requests.
D. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP NOTIFY requests.
E. System Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
Answer: A

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Which three are origination / source type URIs? (Choose three.)
A. Request-URI
B. P-Asserted-Identity
C. Refer-To (in REFER messages)
D. History-info (calling portion)
E. Contact (in 3xx response)
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 Which URL should be used to access the web console to install a System Manager template?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/webconsole
Answer: C

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NO.4 Company XYZ has a multi-location voice network. They have Session Manager at their main
site
and Avaya Communication Manager (CM) and Cisco Call Manager at their branch locations.
Which type of messages does Session Manager send to the Avaya and Cisco PBX configured as SIP
Entities to monitor their status?
A. ENTITY
B. LINK
C. OPTIONS
D. STATUS
Answer: C

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NO.5 A new Application Sequence has already been defined in the network. A technician has been
asked to apply Application Sequence to all incoming calls for all employees in the Berlin office.
Which sequence describes the steps that should be taken?
A. Go to the User Management page and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
office-Select each user from the filtered list and edit each user's User Profile. Apply the new
Application Sequence to the Terminating Application Sequence for each user.
B. Navigate to the Communication Profile Editor and use the filter option to list only the users in
the Berlin location. Select All. Select the new Application Sequence from the Terminating
Application Sequence drop down box.
C. Go to the list of Application Sequences and edit the new Application Sequence, adding the
Berlin location to the list of associated locations.
D. Edit the Berlin Location to include the new Application Sequence as its Terminating Application
Sequence.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Review the output of the command shown in the exhibit.
Which command is used to generate these results and what does it tell you?
A. swversion displays the Session ManagerReleaseinformation.
B. statapp displays the current status of the Session Manager services.
C. initDRS displays the Session ManagerNoderegistration and data replication.
D. traceSM displays a ladder trace of the SIP requests going in and out of the Session Manager.
E. smconfig displays the network information and status the Session Manager.
Answer: E

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NO.7 After a power failure or database crash, the Postgres database may become corrupted and
the
Postgres server may not restart.
The recovery action is to clear the writer-Ahead Log (WAL) and optionally reset other control data,
using which command?
A. pg_resetxlog
B. pg_clearwal
C. pg_dump
D. service postgresq1 restart
E. service wall restart
Answer: A

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NO.8 During a post-installation check of System Manager and Session Manager you discover that
the
Session lager replica node is stuck at "Synchronizing". You run the initTM command in Session
Manager but the replication status does not change.
Which step will be effective in resolving the problem?
A. Reset the enrollment password.
B. Run traceSM to monitor the synchronization events and restart the Security Module.
C. Delete the Session Manager Replica node in System Manager, verify the enrollment password
is valid In System Manager and run the initTM command again in Session Manager.
D. Verify the enrollment password is valid in System Manager and run the initTM command again
in Session Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which three types of handles can be selected for a user when creating users in system
manger?
(Choose three.)
A. SMTP
B. H.323
C. IBM
D. XMPP
E. Undefined
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 When performing a remote backup of system Manager data the administrator is asked for a
user
name and password. Which statement best explains why a user name and password are
required?
A. The backed-up data file is encrypted. The username and password are used in encryption
process and subsequently to access the file on restoring backed up data.
B. The backed-up data is stored on a remote server using SCP. The user name and password are
used to login remote server.
C. Because System Manager Date is being exported from the server for security and
authentication purpose system Manager once again checks the administrator's credentials.
D. All System Manager Data is backed up to common storage repository setup during installation.
For system Manager to access the repository the correct user name and password must be
supplied.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 3306
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Contact Recording and Avaya Quality Monitoring Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Your customer is asking questions about the reliability of their new Avaya Contact Recording
system. They have only one physical recorder.
As far as reliability is concerned, which two options would be available for your customer?
(Choose two)
A. The operating system and call database should be RAID 1 and the recording storage area
should be RAID 5
B. Use a fault tolerant Storage Area Network (SAN)
C. Record calls directly to a network attached storage (NAS)
D. Record calls directly to a tape drive
E. Use any backup software to back up the system daily
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 In the enterprise Reporting Webpage, which two troubleshooting tests are available under ETL
tasks?
A. Test Quality Monitoring Connection and Test Apache Tomcat Connection
B. Test Extract and Test Quality Monitoring Connection
C. Test Extract and Test Reporter Gateway
D. Test File Locations and Test Database Connection
Answer: D

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NO.3 For an Avaya Quality Monitoring Server, which three items should be backed up? (Choose
three)
A. eCorder directory
B. Avaya Quality Monitoring Database
C. Avaya Quality Monitoring Windows Register key
D. postgressql directory
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 You are planning to install an Avaya Contact Recorder on customer site that is using an Avaya
Communication Manager as a PBX.
Which two devices should reachable by the Contact Recorder? (Choose two)
A. Avaya Session Manager
B. Avaya Application Enablement Server
C. Avaya IP Telephones
D. Avaya Communication Manager Gateway
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 A technician is configuring the Avaya Contact Recording to work in a CS1000 environment with
AST recording.
Which entry must be added in the Avaya Contact Recording properties file for this configuration to
work correctly?
A. cc.v6=false
B. aacc.v6=false
C. cc.v6=true
D. aacc.v6=true
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three directories should be excluded from anti-virus software running on the Avaya
Quality
Monitoring Server? (Choose three)
A. PostgresSQL directory
B. QM directory
C. Tomcat directory
D. SQL Server Files and directories
E. Program Files directory
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.7 The license Avaya Contact Recording a three digit code is needed. What is this code called,
and
where can it be found?
A. Avaya CR License Code; Recorder Status > Ports
B. License Generation key; System > License
C. Avaya CR License Code; System > License
D. License Generation key; generation Setup > Recorder
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer has installed two Network Interface Cards (NICs) on an Avaya Contact Recording
server, and they are unable to capture Real-time Transport protocol (RTP) packets.
What are three possible reasons they are encountering this problem? (Choose three)
A. The wrong NIC has been selected to use for RTP .
B. Both NICs belong to the same subnet, and are on a different subnet than CLAN/H323, and AES
IP address defined.
C. There is no network path between both NICs and the recorded IP phones.
D. There is no network path between the Avaya Aura® Communication Manager Media resources
and the NIC on the Avaya Contact Recording server to use for RTP .
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 When an Avaya Contact Recording server is installed with more than one Network Interface
Card
(NIC), what should be set to indicate which NIC to use for Audio and screen content streams?
A. General Setup > Recorder > Replay Server(s)
B. General Setup > Recorder > Key Management Server
C. General Setup > Recorder > IP address on this server to use for recordings
D. General Setup > Recorder URL(s) of external port(s) to connect to
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are two types of reports which can be generated using Enterprise Reporting? (Choose
two)
A. Calibration Reports
B. Call by Call Reports
C. Real Time Reports
D. Graphical Reports
E. Trending Reports
Answer: A,E

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Exam Code: SABE201
Exam Name: Business-Objects (BusinessObjects(TM) Enterprise Certified Professional XI - Level One)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which steps should you follow in the Central Management Console (CMC) in order to create a new
Profile that will enable you to use a Publication to distribute personalized information to each of your store
managers? (Select the best option.)
A.Select the Publication object, click on the Schedule tab, then on Profiles and click Add.
B.Select the Publication object, click on the Source tab, then on Profiles and click Add.
C.Select the Publication object, click on the Profiles tab and click New Profile.
D.Select the Profiles object, click New Profile.
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which two statements are true when you make changes to the report properties of a published Crystal
Report object using the Central Management Console (CMC)? (Choose two.)
A.The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is modified.
B.The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is not modified.
C.The changes are written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
D.The changes are not written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
Answer:B C

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NO.3 Your user groups have different functional needs and your managers would rather employ a more
complicated user group structure than create additional folder levels. What approach should you use to
create a content plan that combines logical report organization and functional user access levels?
A.Use the logical-functional group method.
B.Grant each user advanced rights to each object.
C.Use the functional-folder method.
D.Create a logical content plan.
Answer:A

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NO.4 Where does the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure store a successful Web Intelligence
document instance?
A.The Output File Repository Server (FRS)
B.The Web Intelligence Report Server
C.The Web Intelligence Job Server
D.The Output Application Server (OAS)
Answer:A

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NO.5 Select two true statements from below. (Choose two.)
A.You cannot copy Calendar objects in CMC > Calendars area of administration.
B.You can create your own Calendars in BusinessObjects Enterprise; you have to use the pre-build
business calendars only.
C.You can schedule Web Intelligence documents based on an existing calendar.
D.Calendars can be created in InfoView.
Answer:B C

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NO.6 Which two statements are true regarding user access rights to a given object in BusinessObjects
Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A.Explicitly denied user access overrides all accumulated rights.
B.Objects inherit security from parent folders.
C.Global rights override all other rights.
D.Users inherit rights from the default group to which they belong.
Answer:A B

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NO.7 Assume you are using InfoView and need to locate a specific Web Intelligence report, but you cannot
remember its name. There are 15 Web Intelligence reports in the system and you have access to all
root-level folders. What would be the best way to locate the report?
A.Browse the folders and categories
B.Filter
C.Report off the CMS database
D.Use the Advanced feature of the Search function
Answer:D

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NO.8 The InfoView is mostly used for which of the following tasks:
A.Mostly for administering content
B.Exclusively for viewing reports
C.Viewing information about reports (Encyclopedia and Discussions)
D.Accessing information and some limited content administration
Answer:D

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NO.9 Tasha belongs to the Sales Support group. This group was explicitly denied the View Object right on the
Sales folder. Tasha needs to view objects in the Reports sub-folder of the Sales folder. What change
should you make?
A.Change the Sales Support group's access rights on the Sales folder to View.
B.Change Tasha's access rights to View.
C.Explicitly grant Full Control to Tasha.
D.Explicitly grant the View Object right to the Sales Support group which disables inheritance.
Answer:A

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NO.10 How do you disable anonymous access in BusinessObjects Enterprise?
A.Within InfoView uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
B.Within Central Management Console (CMC) disable Guest account.
C.Within Central Configuration Manager (CCM) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
D.Within Central Management Console (CMC) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
Answer:B

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NO.11 Which three BusinessObjects Enterprise servers interact directly with the databases that contain report
data? (Choose three.)
A.Desktop Intelligence Job Server
B.Crystal Reports Job Server
C.Crystal Reports Page Server
D.Web Intelligence Job Server
Answer:A B C

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NO.12 Which two actions does BusinessObjects Enterprise take when an instance is removed from the system?
(Choose two.)
A.Deletes the instance file from the Output File Repository Server
B.Deletes the record of the instance from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.Keeps the instance file in the Output File Repository Server
D.Keeps a record of the instance in the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
Answer:A B

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NO.13 What options do users have for viewing reports in the Central Management Console (CMC)?
A.They can choose any viewer that is available in the CMC preferences.
B.They can view reports only with the CMC viewer.
C.They cannot view reports in the CMC, only administer the content.
D.They can view reports only with the DHTML viewers.
Answer:A

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NO.14 Once you grant the right to an application value (e.g. Print Documents set to Grant) to a user/group on
a specific application (e.g. Desktop Intelligence), you will still be able to grant that right (e.g. print) to one
Desktop Intelligence document but not the other Desktop Intelligence document.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.15 A user who has always scheduled objects for the Marketing department is leaving your company.
Which method should you use in the Central Management Console (CMC) to ensure that all recurring
instances owned by this user remain in effect but become owned by the Administrator?
A.Disable the departing user then click on the Transfer recurring instances to button and select the
Administrator. Click OK.
B.Delete the departing user; all recurring instances automatically transfer to the Administrator.
C.Open each recurring instance on the object's History tab then click on Schedule for and select
Administrator. Ensure that the instance will use the same recurrence pattern and parameter values.
Delete the departing user when all instances have been duplicated.
D.Download details of all the instances then log on to the CMC as Administrator and schedule them using
the same recurrence patterns and parameter values. Delete the departing user when all instances have
been duplicated.
Answer:B

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NO.16 Which statement describes the role of BusinessObjects Enterprise within the Business Objects
Business Intelligence (BI) suite of products?
A.Allows you to analyze and interact with data from both relational and OLAP data sources.
B.Provides you with an open, scalable platform that supports all of your BI tools and applications.
C.Provides you with a process for accessing data, formatting it and delivering it as information to various
users.
D.Allows you to integrate, transform and deliver enterprise data from any source.
Answer:B

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NO.17 What steps should you follow to make Report A run automatically every day upon the successful
completion of Report B?
A.Working in InfoView, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B to run daily, with events
and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion window. Schedule Report A
to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to wait for window.
B.Working in the Central Management Console, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B
to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion
window. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events
to wait for window.
C.Working in the Central Management Console, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run
daily, with events and add the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs
successfully, trigger the custom event in the Central Management Console.
D.Working in InfoView, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add
the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs successfully, trigger the
custom event in the Central Management Console.
Answer:B

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NO.18 You want department administrators to perform some basic administrative tasks that require them to
be able to access the Central Management Console (CMC). How will you give the department
administrators the right to be able to grant access to the CMC to other administrators in their own
departments?
A.In the Organize Objects area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator
group(s) and grant them the right to "Edit this object".
B.In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the
department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to "Full control".
C.In the Manage Settings area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator
group(s) and grant them the right to "Modify the rights users have to this object".
D.In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the
department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to "Modify the rights users have to this object".
Answer:D

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NO.19 Which statement describes how corporate categories operate as a component of a content and
management plan for your BusinessObjects Enterprise system?
A.Categories must be set up to reflect each user's personal requirements.
B.Copies of objects must be added to each category where they are included.
C.Users have rights to access each object in a category based on its actual folder location.
D.Access rights to objects in categories must be set for each user.
Answer:C

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NO.20 Select two true statements about Scheduling Publications from below. (Choose two.)
A.You can schedule Publication that contains both Desktop Intelligence and Web Intelligence documents.
B.You cannot schedule Publication on a recurring basis.
C.You can test Publication before scheduling.
D.Scheduling Publications is an example of single-pass refresh bursting as oppose to multi-pass report
bursting.
Answer:C D

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Exam Code: QAWI201V3
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Web Intelligence XI 3.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is the default behavior when creating a report from two queries from the same
universe?
A. Result produces two table blocks.
B. Dimension objects are automatically merged.
C. Results are shown on two different report tabs.
D. Dimension objects are not automatically merged.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about the AND operator? (Choose two.)
A. Used when any condition is met by two filters
B. Used when all conditions are met by two filters
C. Used when all conditions are met by more than two filters
D. Used when only one condition is met by any of the filters
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Which three can you use to start the Web Intelligence Rich Client from? (Choose three.)
A. InfoView
B. Command Line
C. Start > All Programs
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Which two Web Intelligence Rich Client authentication methods enable you to export Web
Intelligence documents (WID) to the Central Management Server (CMS)? (Choose two.)
A. LTM
B. LDAP
C. Offline
D. Enterprise
E. Standalone
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Your document displays all data in black. Which dialog box should you use to configure the
colors of your document data?
A. Document Palette
B. Document Formats
C. Display Preferences
D. Data Tracking Options
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which object types can you merge when using Multi Queries in a Web Intelligence
document(WID)?
A. Dimension - Detail
B. Measure - Measure
C. Dimension - Measure
D. Dimension - Dimension
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three layout options can you use when creating sections in a report? (Choose three.)
A. Relative Position
B. Start on New Page
C. Keep Blocks Together
D. Avoid Page Break in Section
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 Where should you configure the regional settings of a Web Intelligence document (WID)
within InfoView?
A. Local Settings
B. Browser Preferences
C. User Machine Settings
D. InfoView Preferences
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the maximum number of sub-alerts that an alerter can contain?
A. 1
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two are limitations of a detail object? (Choose two.)
A. It cannot be drilled on.
B. It cannot be used in the report filter.
C. It cannot be merged in a document.
D. It cannot be used in the WHERE statement of the query.
Answer: A,C

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