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Exam Code: 190-950
Exam Name: Lotus (Administering IBM Lotus Quickr 8.1 Services for Domino)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 93 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 The Computer Corporation has begun the process of upgrading a Lotus Quickr server. After the initial
upgrade is complete, which of the following is true regarding PlaceTypes?
A.PlaceTypes must be upgraded immediately
B.PlaceTypes may be upgraded when convenient
C.PlaceTypes will be unavailable until the upgrade is complete
D.PlaceTypes are removed from the Place Catalog until upgraded
Answer: B

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NO.2 The Marble Corporation has proceeded to upgrade to Lotus Quickr 8.x from a previous version.
Multiple places are being upgraded on the server at the same time to expedite the process. By default,
which of the following is true during this upgrade of the places?
A.Only one place is locked at a time
B.All places being upgraded are locked
C.The entire server is available during the upgrade
D.The entire server is locked during the places upgrade
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following are created by Lotus Quickr when implementing expanded membership?
A.Local administrator names for each room
B.Room-specific access control groups in an LDAP directory
C.Placetypes with preconfigured group membership attributes
D.Extended ACL entries in each main area for each Lotus Quickr place
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is an XML-formatted feed that can pull content from various place document
repository areas such as folder document listings and forms listings?
A.XSS
B.Atom
C.QPFL
D.LDIF
Answer: B

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NO.5 Larry has removed a subroom from the Lotus Quickr place named Sales. Which of the following
occurred when he removed this subroom?
A.The local groups assigned to the Sales place were removed
B.The expanded membership group for the subroom was renamed
C.The Super User account no longer has access to the Sales place
D.The expanded membership groups associated with the subroom were removed
Answer: D

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NO.6 Steven noticed that specific user interface components were not added to custom themes after an
upgrade. Which of the following would not be added after a place upgrade?
A.Index
B.Rooms
C.Library
D.MyPlaces
Answer: D

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NO.7 Expanded membership in Lotus Quickr pertains to which of the following member types?
A.Local members
B.Local group members
C.External group members
D.Individual external members
Answer: D

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NO.8 To manage and control Super User access, you would utilize the qpconfig.xml file for the browser
access and which of the following for Lotus Domino Directory control of Super User access from a Lotus
Notes client by default?
A.QuickrSUGroup
B.QuickPlaceSiteAdministrators
C.QuickrAdministratratorsGroup
D.QuickPlaceAdministratorsSUGroup
Answer: D

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NO.9 To enable people who use double-byte character set (DBCS) languages, such as Chinese, to use My
Places, you must enable which of the following on your Lotus Domino Quickr server?
A.Extended membership
B.Single sign-on authentication
C.Local SuperUser access to My Places
D.Lotus Domino controlled directory services
Answer: B

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NO.10 Barry, a QuickPlace Administrator, uses the QPTools remove command to remove a place. Which of
the following statements about removing places using the remove command is correct?
A.By default, the remove command removes places immediately
B.You must use the remove command on each user in the removed place also
C.You must configure the QPTools Remove field in the server document to determine when the place is
removed
D.If you use the remove command, you do not have to use the unregister command to remove the place
document
Answer: D

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NO.11 Your organization implemented Lotus Domino before adding Lotus Quickr. Your user names appear
as:
FirstName LastName/ou=Chicago/ou=Sales/ou=NA/o=ACME
Which of the following will be the result when these users are added to Lotus Quickr?
A.Users with the above format will be unable to authenticate
B.Users with the above format will appear as FirstName LastName/o=ACME
C.Users with the above format will appear as FirstName LastName/ou=Chicago/ou=Sales
D.Users with the above format will appear as FirstName LastName/ou=Chicago/ou=Sales/ou=NA
Answer: A

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NO.12 Lotus Quickr services for Lotus Domino includes ready-made templates, from which you can create
sites designed to manage projects. Which of the following is the name of this feature?
A.MyPlaces
B.Projects
C.PlaceTypes
D.ProjectCenters
Answer: C

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NO.13 In which of the following places would the administrator specify the name of a user or group that has
SuperUser access to all places on the server?
A.qpconfig.xml
B.In a "local'" user directory
C.In the main Lotus Quickr place
D.In an extended directory source
Answer: A

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NO.14 You have a large number of mobile Lotus Quickr users. They have requested the ability to work offline
with the places in which they are members. Which of the following is required to enable this ability?
A.SSO must be configured on the Lotus Domino Web server
B.SSL must be configured on the Lotus Domino Web server
C.Places must be globally enabled for offline usage
D.User ID files must be issued from the Lotus Domino server
Answer: D

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NO.15 Your Lotus Quickr server has specified both a user directory source during setup and a Lotus Quickr
administrator. In which of the following locations is the administrator stored by default?
A.In the local Lotus Domino Directory
B.A local member of the servers Site Administration place
C.In the user directory source specified during installation
D.In both the local Lotus Domino Directory and the directory source specified during installation
Answer: B

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NO.16 In which of the following locations would an administrator disable context menus or document
drag-and-drop, and configure images and attributes to show in member context menus?
A.notes.ini
B.qpconfig.xml
C.Lotus Domino Directory
D.Site Administration
Answer: B

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NO.17 To establish offline authentication ability for your Lotus Quickr users, you must configure Lotus Domino
Offline Services (DOLS). In which of the following must you store the certifier that users will utilize to
create their ID files for offline usage?
A.da.nsf
B.dols.nsf
C.names.nsf
D.doladmin.nsf
Answer: D

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NO.18 Amanda wishes to show Usage Statistics on the Lotus Quickr server. Which of the following must be
enabled for this feature to function?
A.SuperUser
B.Single sign-on
C.Extended membership
D.Lotus Domino controlled directory services
Answer: B

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NO.19 For Lotus Quickr for Lotus Domino, if you use any non-English version of the Lotus Quickr server, you
must perform which of the following so that page content displays correctly in non-English languages?
A.Specify the additional languages in qpconfig.xml
B.Set up the Lotus Domino server in multiple languages
C.Set up the server to generate output using UTF-8 encoding
D.Generate a list of supported languages and provide those languages as attributes in the directory for
each person
Answer: C

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NO.20 After you have installed or upgraded to IBM Lotus Quickr, you will enable the Lotus Domino Servlet
Engine. This step provides which of the following functions of administration actions?
A.qptool lock
B.qptool verify
C.qptool reduce
D.qptool export
Answer: A

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Exam Code: EE2-181
Exam Name: Legato (Certified EmailXtender Administrator)
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Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What will enabling "Remove Duplicate" prior to performing a search accomplish?
A. removes duplicate instances of a message from the archive
B. returns only messages that are not a part of a distribution list
C. returns only the first instance of a message sent to a distribution list
D. removes duplicate instances of a message from the information store
E. removes duplicate instances of a message from the search results page
Answer: E

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NO.2 A bank has requested a sizing estimate for their email archive:
The bank has provided the following details:
The number of users = 11000
Average message size = 100KB
Average number of messages per day = 35
Number of days per work week = 5
Number of weeks per year = 51
Constants:
EmailXtender compression ratio = 50%
EmailXtender index ratio = 10%
Hourly throughput of EmailXtender Server = 1 GB/Hour
1 TB = 1024 GB
1GB = 1024 MB
1 MB = 1024 KB
How much email (GB) does the bank transmit in a given year?
A. 9363 GB
B. 9818 GB
C. 13401 GB
D. 14053 GB
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two statement are true about the Deletion Task? (choose two)
A. The Deletion Task can be run in simulation mode.
B. The Deletion Task can remove messages from the mail servers message stores
C. The Deletion Task can archive messages without removing them from the mail server.
D. The Deletion Task can shortcut messages before removing them from the mail server.
E. The Deletion Task can remove messages from the EmailXtender archives and the mail
server.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 What does LEGATO recommend you configure before enabling journaling in
Exchange? (Choose three)
A. archive tasks
B. shortcut tasks
C. exclusive rules
D. collection rules
E. sample periods
F. retention periods
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.5 A securities company has 4000 users split between Paris, Zurich, and London. Each
site has two Domino servers and a connection to the internet for incoming and
outgoing email. The connections between the sites are highly-speed and utilization is
moderate.
What should you do to ensure that all communications are forwarded to the
Emailxtender server?
A. You install Emailxtender in Paris and use EmailXtract to gather all email from all
Domain servers at night when traffic slows down.
B. You install a central EmailXtender server in Paris, Install the EmailEtender Domino
installer on all Domino servers, and configure EmailXtender to pull from all mail servers.
C. You install a central EmailXtender server in Paris, install the listener only on the Paris
servers. You create a task in EmailXtract to pull all email from London and Zurich at
night when traffic slows down.
D. You install an EmailXtender server at each site. Since each site has its own connection
to the internet, this configuration will be required to assure that incoming, outgoing, and
site specific email will be captured.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which product feature can be leveraged to perform archival of historical email
messages from restored back-up tapes in response to a legal discovery request?
A. EmailXtract's archive task
B. EmailXtract's ANALYSIS TASK
C. EmailXtender's search client
D. EmailXtender's message review function
Answer: A

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NO.7 How does the EmailXtender Domain listner function on Windows platforms?
A. It links into the mail.box and makes an entry in the notes.InI file.
B. The Domino milter is turned on during the installation of the listener
C. It listens on SMTP port 25 and intercepts all incoming and outgoing email.
D. It is triggered by a "at_msg_post" evnt to copy content from user;s NSF files
Answer: A

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NO.8 Certkiller .com has 8,000 mailbox in two locations: 5,500 at site A and 2,500 at site B.
They plan to capture all messages in a central location.
How many servers should they have and how should they deploy them?
A. one server in site A
B. two servers in site A
C. one server in site A and 1 server in site B
D. two servers in site A and one servers in site B
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which report provides details about sampling settings and message review group
membership?
A. Configuration report
B. Group Activity report
C. Message Detail report
D. Group Membership report
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is NOT indexed by EmailXtender?
A. Zip files
B. PDF files
C. JPEG files
D. Microsoft Visio documents
E. Microsoft Word documents
Answer: C

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Exam Code: JN0-140
Exam Name: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate (JNCIA-AC) 140 Exam)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which statement is correct about defining an Infranet Enforcer for use as a RADIUS Client?
A. You do not need to configure a RADIUS client policy.
B. You must know the exact model number of the Infranet Enforcer.
C. You must specify the NACN password of the device in the RADIUS client policy.
D. You do not need to designate a location group to which the Infranet Enforcer will belong.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What must be updated regularly to detect the newest versions of personal firewalls on endpoints?
A. Infranet Enforcer firmware
B. Infranet Controller rollback software
C. Host Security Assessment Plug-in (HSAP)
D. Endpoint Security Assessment Plug-in (ESAP)
Answer: D

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NO.3 When the Infranet Enforcer is set up in transparent mode, which additional resource policy must be
configured to use OAC for IPsec enforcement?
A. IPsec Routing
B. Access Control
C. IP Address Pool
D. Source Interface
Answer: D

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NO.4 On a pre-existing OAC, which three options can the Infranet Controller overwrite when the user
accesses the Infranet Controller? (Choose three.)
A. SSID
B. login name
C. MAC address
D. wired adapters
E. encryption method
Answer: ADE

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NO.5 What will serve as a RADIUS Client to the Infranet Controller for 802.1x authentication?
A. an ACE server
B. a wireless network
C. an Ethernet switch
D. Odyssey Access Client
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about applying Host Checker at the realm level? (Choose two.)
A. If Evaluate is checked then the client must pass policy to get the sign-in page.
B. If Evaluate is checked then the client can fail policy and still get the sign-in page.
C. If Require and Enforce is checked then the client must pass policy to get the sign-in page.
D. If Require and Enforce is checked then the client can fail policy and still get the sign-in page.
Answer: BC

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NO.7 What happens when Host Checker is configured to perform checks every "0" minutes?
A. Host Checker is disabled.
B. Host Checker will perform continous checks.
C. Host Checker will perform checks when user logs out.
D. Host Checker will perform checks when user first logs in.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two actions are required to configure an Infranet Enforcer to communicate with an Infranet
Controller? (Choose two.)
A. Enable SSH.
B. Configure DNS.
C. Enable route mode.
D. Set certificate validation options.
Answer: AD

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NO.9 Which interface does the Infranet Controller use to push the configuration?
A. trusted port
B. internal port
C. trust interface
D. untrust interface
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the primary purpose of creating a Location Group Policy?
A. to associate more than one realm with an authentication server
B. to logically group network access devices and associate them with specific sign-in policies C. to allow
or prevent users from accessing resources in specific locations on the network
D. to define the URL that users of network access devices can use to access the Infranet Controller
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which action is optional when adding an authentication realm for use on an Infranet Controller?
A. Modify sign-in policy.
B. Configure role mapping.
C. Assign authentication server.
D. Configure authentication policy.
Answer: D

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NO.12 If Host Checker restrictions are applied at the role level and the "Allow access to the role if any ONE of
the select policies is passed" option is unchecked, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. All roles are evaluated together.
B. Each role is evaluated separately.
C. Clients must pass all policies to access the role.
D. Clients will pass as long as one policy is accepted.
Answer: BC

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NO.13 Which additional configuration must be completed when setting up role restrictions using certificates?
A. Set up a certificate authentication server.
B. Configure the authentication realm to remember certificate information.
C. Configure the authentication realm to use a certificate server for authentication.
D. Configure a role mapping rule requiring certification information to map user to role.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is true about the operation of the Infranet Enforcer?
A. It assigns users a set of roles.
B. It allows access based on auth table entries.
C. It verifies whether an endpoint meets security requirements.
D. It configures the UAC agent to allow or deny access to resources.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which configuration option can be set either in the initial console menu or the Admin UI of the Infranet
Controller?
A. VLAN ID
B. Hostname
C. Domain name
D. Administrative timeout
Answer: C

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NO.16 Your company has a mix of employees and contractors. Contractor usernames always begin with
"con-"; employee usernames never begin with "con-". You need to give employees access to all
resources and give contractors access to a limited set of resources. Employee and contractor roles have
been created with the appropriate access privileges, and the realm is set to merge settings for all
assigned roles. Which role mapping ruleset would result in the correct access privileges being assigned?
A. username="*" -> Employee-role Stop username="con-*" -> Contractor-role
B. username="*" -> Employee-role username="con-*" -> Contractor-role Stop
C. username="con-*" -> Contractor-role Stop username="*" -> Employee-role
D. username="con-*" -> Contractor-role username="*" -> Employee-role Stop
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which two methods of authentication are used by the Infranet Controller for IPSec enforcement?
(Choose two.)
A. dial-up VPN
B. IKE authentication
C. XAuth authentication
D. shared IKE authentication
Answer: AC

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NO.18 A customer has installed UAC in their network. They have both Windows and Linux endpoints and
must choose a deployment method that everyone can use. Which deployment method allows for multiple
platforms?
A. IPsec enforcement
B. 802.1X enforcement
C. Source IP enforcement
D. Odyssey Access Client
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which three statements about dynamic filtering are true? (Choose three.)
A. Dynamic filtering creates a query statement.
B. Dynamic filtering has an option to save query.
C. Dynamic filtering can select any log field to filter.
D. Dynamic filtering permanently removes other log entries.
E. Dynamic filtering redraws the log when you select a variable link.
Answer: ABE

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NO.20 Which log contains information about service restarts, system errors, warnings, and requests to check
server connectivity?
A. Events log
B. System log
C. User Access log
D. Admin Access log
Answer: A

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Exam Code: JN0-331
Exam Name: Juniper (SEC,Specialist(JNCIS-SEC))
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Total Q&A: 131 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What are two components of the JUNOS Software architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Linux kernel
B. routing protocol daemon
C. session-based forwarding module
D. separate routing and security planes
Answer: BC

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NO.2 Regarding attacks, which statement is correct?
A. Both DoS and propagation attacks exploit and take control of all unprotected network devices.
B. Propagation attacks focus on suspicious packet formation using the DoS SYN-ACK-ACK proxy flood.
C. DoS attacks are directed at the network protection devices, while propagation attacks are directed at
the servers.
D. DoS attacks are exploits in nature, while propagation attacks use trust relationships to take control of
the devices.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two functions of JUNOS Software are handled by the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. NAT
B. OSPF
C. SNMP
D. SCREEN options
Answer: AD

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NO.4 What is the purpose of a zone in JUNOS Software?
A. A zone defines a group of security devices with a common management.
B. A zone defines the geographic region in which the security device is deployed.
C. A zone defines a group of network segments with similar security requirements.
D. A zone defines a group of network segments with similar class-of-service requirements.
Answer: C

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NO.5 In JUNOS Software, which three packet elements can be inspected to determine if a session already
exists? (Choose three.)
A. IP protocol
B. IP time-to-live
C. source and destination IP address
D. source and destination MAC address
E. source and destination TCP/UDP port
Answer: ACE

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NO.6 Regarding zone types, which statement is true?
A. You cannot assign an interface to a functional zone.
B. You can specifiy a functional zone in a security policy.
C. Security zones must have a scheduler applied.
D. You can use a security zone for traffic destined for the device itself.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the default session timeout for UDP sessions?
A. 30 seconds
B. 1 minute
C. 5 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two statements are true regarding proxy ARP? (Choose two.)
A. Proxy ARP is enabled by default.
B. Proxy ARP is not enabled by default.
C. JUNOS security devices can forward ARP requests to a remote device when proxy ARP is enabled.
D. JUNOS security devices can reply to ARP requests intended for a remote device when proxy ARP is
enabled.
Answer: BD

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
[edit schedulers]
user@host# show
scheduler now {
monday all-day;
tuesday exclude;
wednesday {
start-time 07:00:00 stop-time 18:00:00;
}
thursday {
start-time 07:00:00 stop-time 18:00:00;
}
}
[edit security policies from-zone Private to-zone External]
user@host# show
policy allowTransit {
match {
source-address PrivateHosts;
destination-address ExtServers;
application ExtApps;
}
then {
permit {
tunnel {
ipsec-vpn myTunnel;
}
}
}
scheduler-name now;
Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, what are the actions of the security policy?
A. The policy will always permit transit packets and use the IPsec VPN myTunnel.
B. The policy will permit transit packets only on Monday, and use the IPsec VPN Mytunnel.
C. The policy will permit transit packets and use the IPsec VPN myTunnel all day Monday and
Wednesday 7am to 6pm, and Thursday 7am to 6pm.
D. The policy will always permit transit packets, but will only use the IPsec VPN myTunnel all day Monday
and Wednesday 7am to 6pm, and Thursday 7am to 6pm.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Host A opens a Telnet connection to Host B. Host A then opens another Telnet connection to Host B.
These connections are the only communication between Host A and Host B. The security policy
configuration permits both connections.
How many flows exist between Host A and Host B?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
[edit groups]
user@host# show
node0 {
system {
host-name NODE0;
}
interfaces {
fxp0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 1.1.1.1/24;
}
}
}
}
}
node1 {
system {
host-name NODE1;
}
interfaces {
fxp0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 1.1.1.2/24;
}
}
}
}
}
In the exhibit, what is the function of the configuration statements?
A. This section is where you define all chassis clustering configuration.
B. This configuration is required for members of a chassis cluster to talk to each other.
C. You can apply this configuration in the chassis cluster to make configuration easier.
D. This section is where unique node configuration is applied.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two statements about JUNOS Software packet handling are correct? (Choose two.)
A. JUNOS Software applies service ALGs only for the first packet of a flow.
B. JUNOS Software uses fast-path processing only for the first packet of a flow.
C. JUNOS Software performs route and policy lookup only for the first packet of a flow.
D. JUNOS Software applies SCREEN options for both first and consecutive packets of a flow.
Answer: CD

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NO.13 Which two statements describe the difference between JUNOS Software for security platforms and a
traditional router? (Choose two.)
A. JUNOS Software for security platforms supports NAT and PAT; a traditional router does not support
NAT or PAT.
B. JUNOS Software for security platforms does not forward traffic by default; a traditional router forwards
traffic by default.
C. JUNOS Software for security platforms uses session-based forwarding; a traditional router uses
packet-based forwarding.
D. JUNOS Software for security platforms performs route lookup for every packet; a traditional router
performs route lookup only for the first packet.
Answer: BC

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NO.14 Which two configurations are valid? (Choose two.)
A. [edit security zones]
user@host# show
security-zone red {
interfaces {
ge-0/0/1.0;
ge-0/0/3.0;
}
}
security-zone blue {
interfaces {
ge-0/0/2.0;
ge-0/0/3.102;
}
}
B. [edit security zones]
user@host# show
security-zone red {
interfaces {
ge-0/0/1.0;
ge-0/0/2.0;
}
}
security-zone blue {
interfaces {
ge-0/0/1.0;
ge-0/0/3.0;
}
}
C. [edit routing-instances]
user@host# show
red {
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
interface ge-0/0/2.102;
}
blue {
interface ge-0/0/0.0;
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
}
D. [edit routing-instances]
user@host# show
red {
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
interface ge-0/0/3.102;
}
blue {
interface ge-0/0/0.0;
interface ge-0/0/2.0;
}
Answer: AD

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NO.15 A traditional router is better suited than a firewall device for which function?
A. VPN establishment
B. packet-based forwarding
C. stateful packet processing
D. Network Address Translation
Answer: B

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NO.16 For IKE phase 1 negotiations, when is aggressive mode typically used?
A. when one of the tunnel peers has a dynamic IP address
B. when one of the tunnel peers wants to force main mode to be used
C. when fragmentation of the IKE packet is required between the two peers
D. when one of the tunnel peers wants to specify a different phase 1 proposal
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which three functions are provided by JUNOS Software for security platforms? (Choose three.)
A. VPN establishment
B. stateful ARP lookups
C. Dynamic ARP inspection
D. Network Address Translation
E. inspection of packets at higher levels (Layer 4 and above)
Answer: ADE

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NO.18 By default, which condition would cause a session to be removed from the session table?
A. Route entry for the session changed.
B. Security policy for the session changed.
C. The ARP table entry for the source IP address timed out.
D. No traffic matched the session during the timeout period.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which two statements describe the difference between JUNOS Software for security platforms and a
traditional router? (Choose two.)
A. JUNOS Software for security platforms supports NAT and PAT; a traditional router does not support
NAT or PAT.
B. JUNOS Software for security platforms secures traffic by default; a traditional router does not secure
traffic by default.
C. JUNOS Software for security platforms allows for session-based forwarding; a traditional router uses
packet-based forwarding.
D. JUNOS Software for security platforms separates broadcast domains; a traditional router does not
separate broadcast domains.
Answer: BC

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NO.20 Users can define policy to control traffic flow between which two components? (Choose two.)
A. from a zone to the device itself
B. from a zone to the same zone
C. from a zone to a different zone
D. from one interface to another interface
Answer: BC

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Exam Code: JN0-101
Exam Name: Juniper (JNCIA-JUNOS EXAM OBJECTIVES)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 190 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You issue the ping interface t1-1/1/0 1.1.1.1 bypass-routing count 1000 rapid command
Which statement is correct?
A.The bypass-routing parameter is used to test the density on the T1 line
B.The bypass-routing parameter cannot be used on a T1 interface
C.The bypass-routing parameter allows you to ping a host through an interface that has no route through
it
D.The bypass-routing parameter allows you to ping a local WAN interface without generating any
outbound traffic
Answer: C

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NO.2 Whitch three user authentication methos are supported by the Junos OS? (Choose three)
A.RADIUS
B.CHAP
C.local user database
D.tacacs+
E.PAP
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 What are two valid match criteria for a routing policy? (Choose two)
A.OSPF area ID
B.prefix list
C.port
D.time-to-live (TTL)
Answer: AB

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NO.4 What is the default protocol preference for OSPF internal routes?
A.10
B.15
C.150
D.160
Answer: A

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NO.5 Given the configuration and routing table in the exhibit, which routes will be advertised to OSPF
neighbors because of the demo policy?
A.192.168.0.0/16 only
B.192.168.0.0/17 only
C.192.168.50.0/24 and 192.168.51.0/24
D.192.168.0.0/17, 192.168.50.0/24 and 192.168.51.0/24
Answer: D

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NO.6 Referring to the exhibit, which type of classifier is being used in this CoS configuration?
[edit fireall family inet filter COS-CLASSIFIER]
user@router# show
term MANAGER {
form {
soruce-address {
192.168.200.0/25;
}
destination-address {
100.100.100.1/32;
}
}
then {
forwarding-class expedited-forwarding;
accept;
}
}
term ALL-OTHER-TRAFFIC {
then accept;
}
[edit interfaces ge-0/0/1]
user@router# show
unit 0 {
family inet {
filter {
input COS-CLASSIFIER
}
address 192.168.200.1/24;
}
}
A.behavior aggregate
B.policer
C.multifield
D.forward policy
Answer: C

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NO.7 What represents the binary equivalence of 207?
A.11001111
B.11101011
C.11010111
D.11010101
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the default import routing for OSPF?
A.Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the 3 routing table
B.Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet7.0 routing table
C.Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet4.0 routing table
D.Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet.0 routing table
Answer: D

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NO.9 When using the monitor traffic command on Junos devices, which UNIX-based utility is accessed?
A.snoop
B.tcpdump
C.monitor
D.tail
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about the forwarding table? (Choose two)
A.The forwarding table lists each source protocol and preference for each destination
B.The forwarding table constains only active routes
C.The forwarding table is used to process transit packets
D.The forwarding table is stored in compact flash
Answer: BC

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NO.11 You are the top of hierarchy and must configure OSPF on inteface so-0/0/0 unit 100.Which two
achieve this result? (Choose two)
A.set protocols set ospf area 0 set interface so-0/0/0.100
B.set protocols ospf area 0 interface so-0/0/0.100
C.edit protocols ospf interface so-0/0/0.100
D.edit protocols ospf area 0 set interface so-0/0/0.100
Answer: BD

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NO.12 Referring to the exhibit,
which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A.The route 192.168.1.0/25 is accepted
B.The route 192.168.2.0/25 is accepted
C.OSPF routes will be exported into RIP
D.RIP routes will be exported into OSPF
Answer: AD

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NO.13 Which three protocols use UDP as a transport protocol by default? (Choose three)
A.HTTP
B.TFTP
C.DNS
D.SNMP
E.SMTP
Answer: BCD

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NO.14 What must be configured prior to the first commit after factory defaults are loaded?
A.root authentication
B.default gateway
C.hostname
D.management services
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which account is used to access a Junos device in a factory-default configuration?
A.root
B.admin
C.juniper
D.user
Answer: A

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NO.16 You have been asked to create a static route with a next hop that is not directly connected to the
router.Which configuration parameter enables the static route to accomplish this scenario?
A.resolve
B.indirect
C.next-hop
D.recursive
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which two statements are true about the rescue configuration file? (Choose two)
A.It must include a root password
B.It is roll back file number 50, and you can recover it by issuing rollback 50
C.It is created by issuing request system configuration rescue save
D.It is updated automatically when you commit
Answer: AC

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NO.18 Which command do you use to go from the shell prompt to the CLI prompt.?
A.run cli
B.cli
C.start cli
D.edit
Answer: B

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NO.19 Given the routing entries shown in the exhibit, which next-hop IP address will be used for the
destination IP address 192.168.1.142? (Assume that only static routes are available for the destination)
A.10.20.106.10
B.10.20.14.131
C.10.18.1.1
D.10.20.14.130
Answer: D

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NO.20 You need to control SSH, HTTP, and Telnet access to an MX240 router through any interface.You have
decided to use a firewall filter.How should you apply the firewall filter?
A.as an outbound filter on interface fxp0
B.as an outbound filter on interface lo0
C.as an inbound filter on interface fxp0
D.as an inbound filter on interface lo0
Answer: D

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Exam Code: JN0-314
Exam Name: Juniper (Junos Pulse Access Control, Specialist (JNCIS-AC))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What are two ways to access the Junos Pulse Access Control Service? (Choose two.)
A. admin GUI
B. Telnet
C. SSH
D. console
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 You are configuring an IPsec routing policy that will be used with a ScreenOS firewall enforcer. What
must you also configure?
A. Source IP policies on the ScreenOS device
B. ScreenOS IPsec policies on the Junos Pulse Access Control Service
C. VPN NAT traversal on the ScreenOS device
D. Source interface policies on the Junos Pulse Access Control Service
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the function of Host Checker?
A. To allow clientless access to the network
B. To restrict access to protected resources on the network
C. To scan an endpointfor compliance with security policies
D. To push a firewall policy to the endpoint's local firewall application
Answer: B

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NO.4 A user's Junos Pulse client uses 802.1X to access a wired network and is failing to authenticate. You
run a packet capture from the user's PC and notice that immediately after the client machine sends an
EAPoL-start packet, an EAP-failure packet is returned. You review the RADIUS troubleshooting logs on
the MAG Series device and do not see any authentication attempts from the user. Other users on the
same Ethernet switch are successfully authenticating.
Which device is sending the EAP-failure packet to the workstation?
A. The RADIUS server
B. The EAPoL server
C. The workstation's network adapter
D. The Ethernet switch
Answer: D

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NO.5 You want to ensure that users who access the company's protected resources present a client
certificate before they are allowed to sign in.
What should you configure?
A. A certificate authentication policy that allows all users and remembers certificate information while the
user is signed in.
B. A certificate authentication policy that only allows users with a client-side certificate signed by a trusted
client CA to sign in.
C. A certificate role restriction that allows all users and remembers certificate information while the user is
signed in.
D. A certificate role restriction that only allows users with a client-side certificate signed by a trusted client
CA to sign in.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are configuring an active/passive cluster of SRX Series devices as the firewall enforcer on a MAG
Series device. Which statement is true?
A. Multiple Infranet Enforcer instances are created with a single serial number of an SRX Series device
defined in each configuration.
B. A single Infranet Enforcer instance is created with both serial numbers of the clustered SRX Series
devices defined in the configuration.
C. Multiple Infranet Enforcer instances are created with a single IP address of an SRX Series device
defined in each configuration.
D. A single Infranet Enforcer instance is created with the VIP of the clustered SRX Series device defined
in the configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is a type of firewall enforcer supported by the Junos Pulse Access Control Service.?
A. Checkpoint firewall
B. SRX Series device
C. DP sensor
D. MX Series device
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which three settings are accessible from the serial console menu on a MAG Series device? (Choose
three.)
A. The ping command
B. Factory default reset
C. Personality image
D. License imports
E. Admin login credentials
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.9 You have a Junos Pulse Secure Access Service acting as an IF-MAP client, configured to federate all
user roles to a Junos Pulse Access Control Service acting as an IF-MAP Federation server. A remote user
using Junos Pulse logs in to the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service; the Junos Pulse Secure Access
Service provisions a remote access session for that user.
What happens next?
A. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service redirects the user to the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service
for authentication
B. The Junos Pulse Access Control Service provisions enforcement points to enable resource access for
that user.
C. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service publishes user session and role information to the IFMAP
Federation server,
D. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service provisions enforcement points to enable resource access for
that user.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You have a firewall enforcer protecting resources in a data center. A user is experiencing difficulty
connecting to a protected resource.
Which two elements must exist so the user can access the resource? (Choose two.)
A. Resource access policy on the MAG Series device
B. IPsec routing policy on the MAG Series device
C. General traffic policy blocking access through the firewall enforcer
D. Auth table entry on the firewall enforcer
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the cause of the error shown in the exhibit?
A. A RADIUS request is being received from a device that is not configured on the RADIUS Client page.
B. A user entered an incorrect password during RADIUS authentication.
C. A RADIUS proxy attempt failed to reach the configured proxy server.
D. The RADIUS shared secret is incorrect.
Answer: A

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NO.12 A customer is trying to decide which 802.1X inner protocol to use on their network. The customer
requires that no passwords be sent across the network in plain text, that the protocol be supported by the
Windows native supplicant, and that the protocol supports password changes at Layer 2.
Which protocol would meet the customer's needs?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-MD5
C. PAP
D. EAP-MSCHAPv2
Answer: D

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NO.13 A customer wants to create a custom Junos Pulse configuration. Which two are required? (Choose two)
A. Connection set
B. Configuration set
C. Custom installer
D. Component set
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 You navigate to "UAC" > "Infranet Enforcer" > "Auth Table Mapping" in the admin GUI. You see one
policy, which is the unmodified, original default policy.
Which statement is true?
A. Dynamic auth table mapping is not enabled.
B. A successful authentication attempt will result in a new authentication table entry, which will be
delivered only to the Junos enforcer protecting the network from which the user has authenticated.
C. To create a static auth table mapping, you must delete the default policy.
D. The default policy applies only to the factory-default role User.
Answer: A

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NO.15 A customer has purchased a third-party switch to use for Layer 2 access with their Junos Pulse Access
Control Service. When configuring the switch on the Junos Pulse Access Control Service, the customer
does not find a make/model entry for it.
Which two actions should the customer take to make the switch work with the Junos Pulse Access Control
Service? (Choose two.)
A. Add the switch to the Junos Pulse Access Control Service as a standard RADIUS.
B. Add the switch to the Junos Pulse Access Control Service using the "Any" make/model.
C. Add the switch as a firewall enforcer.
D. Obtain and configure the RADIUS dictionary for the switch and use that vendor listing for the
make/model.
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: JN0-694
Exam Name: Juniper (Enterprise Routing and Switching Support, Professional (JNCSP-ENT))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 36 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You are implementing Q-in-Q tunneling on an EX Series switch. You want the tunnel to support
all C-VLANs; however, only some VLANs are able to send traffic across the tunnel.
Switch-1 has the following configuration:
[edit vlans]
user@Switch-1# show
v100 {
vlan-id 100;
interface {
ge-0/ 0/ 0.10;
ge-0/ 0/1.20;
}
dot1q-tunneling {
customer-vlans [ ];
}
}
What would solve this problem?
A. Add family ethernet-switching to the tunnel-side interface on Switch-1.
B. Implement RSTP .
C. Q-in-Q tunneling will not work in this scenario; use a Layer 2 VPN instead.
D. Remove the customer-vlans statement.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are having problems redistributing RIP routes into OSPF. Your Junos device has the
following configuration:
[edit protocols ospf]
user@router# show
import my-policy;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/ 0/ 0.0;
interface ge-0/ 0/ ;
interface ge-0/ 0/ {
passive;
}
}
What would resolve the problem?
A. Apply my-policy as an export policy under the [edit protocols rip] hierarchy.
B. Apply my-policy as an import policy under the [edit protocols rip] hierarchy.
C. Apply my-policy as an export policy under the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.
D. Use the area-range parameter instead of a routing policy.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are troubleshooting a problem where an OSPF adjacency between two neighboring
routers will not form.
What are two reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. One or both of the connected interfaces are missing the family inet statement.
B. One or both of the connected interfaces are missing the family iso statement.
C. The connected interfaces are not on the same subnet.
D. Another IGP is running on one or both of the routers, overriding OSPF.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Your Junos device is dropping certain traffic flows, while allowing other traffic flows to pass
through the device unaffected.
Which CoS component is causing this problem?
A. BA classification
B. RED
C. MF classification
D. Rewrite rules
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your switch is experiencing a problem where a port that should have only one host connected
occasionally shows that multiple MAC addresses are being learned.
Which configuration setting would ensure that no extra hosts can join the network using this switch
port?
A. mac-limit
B. no-mac-learning
C. persistent-learning
D. bpdu-block-on-edge
Answer: D

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NO.6 Two neighboring routers are able to form an OSPF adjacency, but are not able to establish an
IBGP neighborship.
What are two reasons for the IBGP neighborship problem? (Choose two.)
A. One of the devices has a misconfigured BGP peer address.
B. One or both of the connected interfaces are missing the family iso statement.
C. OSPF has a lower route preference than BGP .
D. A firewall filter on one of the interfaces is blocking TCP traffic.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 You observe that a router is using an unusually high amount of CPU cycles.
You determine that continuous SPF calculations in OSPF are being performed.
What are two reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The wrong authentication keys between the OSPF neighbors are used.
B. The interface MTU is mismatched between the OSPF neighbors.
C. There are duplicate router IDs within the OSPF area.
D. An OSPF adjacency is flapping.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Your Layer 2 network uses VLAN IDs 100 through 400 and you are required to load-balance
these VLANs between two different root bridges. You are currently using the default RSTP settings
and notice that all VLANs are using the same root bridge.
How do you ensure the VLANs are load-balanced between two root bridges?
A. Configure MSTP with two MSTI regions and split the VLAN range between them.
B. Configure VSTP with two VLAN groups and split the VLAN range between them.
C. Configure two RSTP instances and split the VLAN range between them.
D. Configure STP and RSTP and split the VLAN range between them.
Answer: A

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